MrZoolook wrote:Source of the post You seem to have contradicted yourself. You say more than 2 numbers means equal chance of draw, then say more than 2 numbers has only 50% chance of draw. Explain please!
I meant that a number/set of numbers/whatever , let's say
x, has exactly the same chance of appearing as
y. If there are 3 numbers/sets of numbers/whatever for example x has a 33.3333.. % chance of being drawn, same with y. If there are 100 numbers/sets of numbers/whatever, x has a 1% chance of being drawn, same with y.
MrZoolook wrote:Source of the post Yes, and each time all 1000 numbers are eligible to be drawn (ie: in each draw because they get entered back into the machine), each number has the same 0.01% chance of being drawn. And consequently, each possible combination of 6 numbers has the exact same possibility of being drawn.
Yes my previous post implies that.
What i believe you meant that let's say combination 6,5,69,42 (or something) gets drawn a second time is the same as something else will get drawn that second time. As in a combination 6,5,69,42 and then combination 6,5,69,42 is just as likely as 6,5,69,42 and then another combination(not a specific other combination, in which case it is fifty-fifty, looking away from all the other combinations. Just a combination that is not 6,5,69,42). Which is only true if there are two combinations.
There is a significant chance that i misunderstood you, in which case, sorry
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